In Phil. 3:3-6 we find one of the most revealing autobiographical accounts of Paul’s former manner of life in Judaism. In v. 6 he concludes his list of Jewish privileges, he states: “as to righteousness under the law: blameless” (beware the NIV adds the word ‘legalistic’ to the Greek). Paul then goes on to say that he has given all of these things up for the sake of knowing Christ and understanding the power of his resurrection in hope that he too might become a partaker in it.
It is this phrase ‘blameless’ which I want to discuss. Did Paul say that this attitude was one that he discarded upon his acceptance of Christ? I doubt so. Why, might you ask? Because earlier in the latter, in 2:15, Paul states that his desire is to see this very same blamelessness among his converts.
“so that you will prove yourselves to be blameless and innocent, children of God above reproach in the midst of a crooked and perverse generation, among whom you appear as lights in the world”
The same Gk. ἄμεμπτος is used in both places.
Do Christians read a passage like Phil. 2:15 and thing, “Oh, I will never be THAT good! That seems impossible, and therefore I will never try.” How do you read this passage, or the one found in Phil. 3:6?